I am a physicist in training, and was only taught about the dual vector space quite loosely within the context of quantum mechanics. I was told that the dual vector space to some ket space in which the kets are column vectors, consists of row vectors with elements from the same field.
Now I am reading the formal definition for a dual space as a "space of all linear functionals $f:V\rightarrow \mathbb{F}$".
Now I am happy with the idea that this itself forms a linear vector space. However I have not been able to convince myself- conceptually nor with a formal proof- that the dual space to a linear vector space consisting of some n dimensional column vectors is necessarily isomorphic to a linear vector space of row vectors.
If my understanding is correct, the loose notion of a dual space I was introduced to via QM is actually saying that "a linear functional $f:V\rightarrow \mathbb{F}$ acting on a linear vector space $V$ in which the elements are some n component column vectors with entries from a field $\mathbb{F}$, say {$v_i$} as the components of a vector, necessarily takes the form $\Sigma a_i v_i$ for any constants $a_i \in \mathbb{F}$. In this case there is clearly an isomorphism between the space of row vectors plus standard inner product (acting on the elemtns of the row vector space $V$) and the space of functionals on V.
However it is not clear to me that all linear functionals on the row vector space $V$ can be written in this form, and therefore that this does constitute the dual space to V.
If I'm understanding you correctly, you want to see how all functionals on a Hilbert space can be represented by another vector via the inner product? This is known as the Riesz representation theorem. It states for for a Hilbert space $H$, the map $H \to H^*$ sending $v$ to $\langle v, \cdot \rangle$ (a linear function on $H$) is an isomorphism. In particular, given any functional $f$, there is a unique $v$ such that $f(\cdot) = \langle v, \cdot \rangle$ (and this satisfies some nice properties).
The proof of this is as follows. Given $0 \neq f \in H^*$, then $\ker f$ is a closed proper subspace of $H$ and so there exists $0 \neq x_0 \in (\ker f)^{\perp}$. Note that, since $f (x_0) \neq 0$, we can make a decomposition $$y = \underbrace{\left(y - \frac{f (y)}{f (x_0)} x_0\right)}_{ \in \; \ker f}+ \underbrace{\frac{f (y)}{f (x_0)} x_0}_{\in \;\text{span }\{x_0\}} \quad \forall y \in H,$$ which is an orthogonal decomposition (inner product between the two summands is zero). Since $$\langle y, x_0\rangle = \frac{f (y)}{f (x_0)} ||x_0||^2 \quad \forall y \in H,$$ it follows that $$x = \frac{\overline{f (x_0)}}{||x_0||^2} x_0$$ satisfies $\langle y, x\rangle = f (y)$ for all $y$. To see this, note \begin{align*} \langle y,x\rangle & = \left\langle y - \frac{f (y)}{f (x_0)} x_0 +\frac{f (y)}{f (x_0)} x_0, \frac{\overline{f(x_0)}}{||x_0||^2}x_0 \right\rangle \\ & = \left\langle \frac{f (y)}{f (x_0)} x_0 , \frac{\overline{f(x_0)}}{||x_0||^2}x_0 \right\rangle \\ & = \frac{f(y)}{||x_0||^2} \langle x_0,x_0 \rangle = f(y). \end{align*} And this is what we wanted to show.
It is worth noting that the above proof works for infinite-dimensional Hilbert spaces.