According to the theory, in order to have a Fourier transform of a function, the latter must have finite energy. Nevertheless, the Dirac impulse has infinite energy, but its Fourier transform exists. How is that possible?
2026-04-06 23:03:02.1775516582
The existence of a Fourier transform
23 Views Asked by Bumbble Comm https://math.techqa.club/user/bumbble-comm/detail AtRelated Questions in FOURIER-TRANSFORM
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