$G$ is a finite group. If $\Phi(G)=1$, do we have $\Phi(F(G))=1$?
In general, I think, for a normal subgroup $N$ of $G$, we have $\Phi(N)\le \Phi(G)$. But I was stuck.
Let $M \le G$ be some maximal subgroup. We want to prove that $\Phi(N)$ is contained in every maximal subgroup of $G$. If $\Phi(N)\le M$, then we are done. If $\Phi(N)$ is not contained in $M$ then since $M$ is maximal in $G$, we have $M\Phi(N) = G$. Hence by the Dedekind modular law we have $N = N \cap M\Phi(N) = (N\cap M)\Phi(N)$. But what to do next? Thank you!
No, you are not "done" if $\Phi(N) \leq M$.
From the top: There are two possibilities. Either $\Phi(N)$ is contained in every maximal subgroup of $G$, in which case $\Phi(N)$ is also contained in the intersection of all those maximals which is by definition the Frattini subgroup of $G$ (and now you are done)
or
there exists a maximal subgroup $M$ such that $\Phi(N)$ is not contained in $M$. But $\Phi(N)$ is normal in $G$ (because it is characteristic in $N$ which is normal in $G$) so $M\Phi(N)$ is a group which properly contains $M$ and thus $G=M\Phi(N)$. By Dedekind's lemma we now have $N = (N \cap M)\Phi(N)$ and by the standard property which says that the Frattini subgroup is the set of non-generators this yields $N=N\cap M$ and thus $N \leq M$. This is a contradiction, however, since $\Phi(N) \leq N \leq M$, but we are assuming that $\Phi(N) \nleq M$.