Can someone provide a tip with creating the bijection for the titular problem? Any tip is helpful!
Update: $n=\{ 0,\ldots,n-1 \}$, $m=\{ 0,\ldots,m-1 \}$, and $ m^n=\{0,\ldots,m^n-1\} $. In other words, natural numbers (in set theory) are sets consisting of its predecessors.
I've never worked this out on my own. It's about time I did.
Recall the definition of exponentiation. Exponentiation is the unique function from $\Bbb N\times \Bbb N$ such that
We will denote the set of function from $X$ to $Y$ by $X\rightarrow Y$. Now we show that the cardinality of $n\rightarrow m$ is $m^n$. We will proceed by induction, but we need two lemmas:
With these two lemmas we can proceed.
Base case: For any set $X$, we have that there is a unique function from $\varnothing$ to $X$. Thus for any finite ordinal $m$, we have that the cardinality of $0\rightarrow m$ is $1=m^0$.
Induction: Suppose for any finite set $X$ with cardinality $k$ less than or equal to $n$, we have that the cardinality of $X\rightarrow m$ is $m^k$. Now let $Y$ be a set of cardinality $n+1$. Let $Y=\{x_1, \ldots, x_{n+1}\}=\{x_1,\ldots, x_n\}\cup\{x_{n+1}\}$. By Lemma 2, we have that $Y\rightarrow m\simeq \left(\{x_1,\ldots, x_n\}\rightarrow m\right)\times\left(\{x_{n+1}\}\rightarrow m\right)$. And by induction and our first lemma, we know the cardinality of this latter set is $m^n\cdot m=m^{n+1}$.
Thus by induction we have for any two set $X$ and $Y$ of cardinality $n$ and $m$ respectively, we have that the cardinality of $X\rightarrow Y$ is $m^n$.
I'll leave the lemmas for you to prove. ;)