Look at the following proposition (Hartshorne Lemma V.5.1):
Let $f:X-\rightarrow Y$ be a birational map between projective varieties, with $X$ normal. Then the locus where $f$ is not defined has codimension $2$ in $X$.
The proof shows the following thing: if $x$ is a point of codimension $1$ (I think that codimension $1$ means that $\mathcal O_{X,x}$ has dimension $1$) then $f$ is defined at $x$.
I don't understand why this fact implies the above proposition! Why if $f$ is defined at points of codimension $1$ then the fundamental locus has codimension $2$?
You should interpret "codimension 2" here as meaning "codimension at least 2".
Of course the fundamental locus could have higher codimension, for example when $f$ is a morphism.