I am trying to show that $C=f_1(C)\cup f_2(C)$ where $f_1=\frac{1}{3}x$ and $f_2=\frac{2}{3}+\frac{1}{3}x$ but I am having trouble. I am not really sure how to start the reverse direction. If $x \in C$ then $f_1(x) \in C$ as it just changes to a different but proper ternary representation. $f_2(x) \in C$ because of the same reason. So $f_1(C)\cup f_2(C) \subseteq C$. But I am having trouble with the reverse. Hints would be appreciated.
2026-03-26 06:30:49.1774506649
The image of the Cantor set of functions.
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I suppose the $C$ you're talking about is the Cantor set, the set of all $x \in [0,1]$ that can be represented in ternary without using the digit $1$.
What do all $y \in f_1(C)$ have in common? What do all $y \in f_2(C)$ have in common?
Now pick any $y \in C$, and look at it closely. Can you tell from its ternary representation whether $y$ is in $f_1(C)$? Can you tell whether it is in $f_2(C)$?
This should be a sufficient hint to help you solve the problem.