Show how if $\gcd(m,n)=1$, $\mathbb{Z}_{mn}$ is the internal direct product of two subgroups.
I know that internal direct products must meet three criteria.
- $G=HK=\{hk:h\in H, k\in K\}$
- $hk=kh$ for all $h\in H$ and $k\in K$
- $H\cap K=\{e\}$ (the identity).
I'm struggling with relating this to the $\gcd(m,n)=1$.
You probably can start by trying $\langle\bar m\rangle \times \langle \bar n\rangle$. Then since $\mathbb{Z}_{mn}$ is abelian, your criterion (2) is automatically fulfilled.
Criteria (1) and (3) come from $lcm(m,n)=mn$ and $gcd(m,n)=1$ respectively. So your assumption on $gcd$ is essential.
Consider $\mathbb{Z}_4$ then you cannot write it as $\mathbb{Z}_2\times\mathbb{Z}_2$ ($\mathbb{Z}_4$ is cyclic, i.e. generated by an element $\mathbb{Z}_4=\langle 1\rangle$, while $\mathbb{Z}_2\times\mathbb{Z}_2$ is not; also $\mathbb{Z}_4$ has elements of order 4 (1 and 3), but $\mathbb{Z}_2\times\mathbb{Z}_2$ does not [all non-identity element has order 2]) (Compare with $\mathbb{Z}_6\cong\mathbb{Z}_2\times\mathbb{Z}_3$ by Chinese remainder theorem. )