From Wikipedia-Entry on Equivalence Relatin:Lattices
The possible equivalence relations on any set X, when ordered by set inclusion, form a complete lattice, called Con X by convention. The canonical map ker: X^X → Con X, relates the monoid X^X of all functions on X and Con X. ker is surjective but not injective. Less formally, the equivalence relation ker on X, takes each function f: X→X to its kernel ker f. Likewise, ker(ker) is an equivalence relation on X^X.
ker ist not a function from $X \to X$, so how could it be applied to itself, for me the expression ker(ker) makes no sense?
My guess is that ker(ker) is the map $\text{ker} : (X^X)^X \rightarrow \text{Con} (X^X)$.
In general, for any sets $Y$ and $Z$, there is a map $\text{ker} : Y^Z \rightarrow \text{Con}(Y)$ which associates to a function $f : Y \rightarrow Z$ the equivalence relation on $Y$ defined by $y \equiv y' \Leftrightarrow f(y) = f(y')$.