No matter how I tried to understand the red box,
I still get $\int_{0}^{\infty} \frac{1}{\sqrt{t}(1+t)^{r/2}}dt$ , and this is a dead end to me.
Can anyone explain it?
2026-03-25 18:48:36.1774464516
The last step of proof of Converse mapping for Mellin Transform
28 Views Asked by Bumbble Comm https://math.techqa.club/user/bumbble-comm/detail AtRelated Questions in CALCULUS
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