It is well-known that if $R$ is an Artin ring,and $ab=1$ in $R$ where $a,b\in R$,then $ba=1a$.(This is not difficult)this is a very hot in Mathematics. If $AB = I$ then $BA = I$
It seems it is not right for arbitrary ring that if $ab=1$,then $ba=1$. Can someone helps to give an example.
Thanks in advance!
Let e.g. $e_1,e_2,\dots$ be a basis, and consider $B:=e_k\mapsto e_{k+1}$ and $A:=e_k\mapsto e_{k-1}, \ e_1\mapsto 0$
2.Take any monoid $M$ that satisfies this, then consider its 'group ring' $\Bbb ZM$.