I would like to show that
$$\lim_{x\to 0^{+}}\frac{e^{x\ln(x)}-1}{x}=-\infty$$
without using:
- L'Hôpital's rule
- expansion series.
My thoughts
$$ \lim_{x\to 0^{+}}\frac{e^{x\ln(x)}-1}{x}=\lim_{x\to 0^{+}}\frac{\ln(x)(e^{x\ln(x)}-1)}{x\ln(x)}=\left(\lim_{x\to 0^{+}}\ln(x)\right)\left(\lim_{x\to 0^{+}}\frac{e^{x\ln(x)}-1}{x\ln(x)}\right)$$
- $\left(\lim_{x\to 0^{+}}\ln(x)\right)=-\infty$
- $\left(\lim_{x\to 0^{+}}\frac{e^{x\ln(x)}-1}{x\ln(x)}\right)$
let $x\ln(x)=t$ then we have
$$\left(\lim_{x\to 0^{+}}\frac{e^{x\ln(x)}-1}{x\ln(x)}\right)=\left(\lim_{t\to 0^{+}}\frac{e^{t}-1}{t}\right)=1$$
thus $$ \lim_{x\to 0^{+}}\frac{e^{x\ln(x)}-1}{x}=-\infty$$
Questions:
Am I right?
Is there any other way that let us to calculate that limit without using L'Hôpital's rule
or any expansion series?
As you've shown, it's the derivative at $0$*. So I would recommend just differentiating $\exp(x\ln(x))$, seeing what you get and then taking the limit $x \to 0$. $$\frac{d}{dx} [\exp(x \ln(x))] = (\ln(x) + 1)\exp(x\ln(x)) \to -\infty, \ x \to 0^+,$$ since $x\ln(x) \to 0$ as $x \to 0^+$, and $\exp$ is continuous, so $\exp(x\ln(x)) \to 1$ as $x \to 0^+$.
*It isn't actually the derivative at $0$, since $\ln(0)$ is not defined. However, you are looking for the limit as $x \to 0$ (since $\ln(0)$ is not defined), so you take the limit $x \to 0^+$.
Hope this helps! :)