For smooth functions, we know that $$-\int_{\Omega}\Delta v w = \int_\Omega \nabla v \nabla w - \int_{\partial \Omega}\nabla v \cdot \nu w.$$ Thus we can define a generalised normal derivative $\frac{\partial }{\partial \nu}\colon H^{1}(\Omega) \to H^{-\frac{1}{2}}(\Gamma)$ with the formula $$\left\langle \frac{\partial v}{\partial \nu}, w \right \rangle_{H^{-\frac 1 2}(\partial\Omega), H^{\frac 1 2}(\partial\Omega)} := \int_\Omega \nabla v \nabla W+\langle \Delta v, W\rangle_{H^{-1}, H^1}$$ where $W \in H^1(\Omega)$ is an extension of $w \in H^{\frac 1 2}(\Gamma)$.
Questions:
- Is this really how the normal derivative functional is defined? I only saw this in one source.
- since $v \in H^1$, $\Delta v \in L^2$ makes no sense, but the author has taken it to be an element of $H^{-1}$ which is OK, but what on earth is it??
- I guess it doesn't matter which extension one uses of $w$.
You cannot define a normal derivative trace $\frac{\partial }{\partial \nu}$ acting from $H^{1}(\Omega)$ to $H^{-\frac{1}{2}}(\Gamma)$ such that it has reasonable properties:
For $\varphi \in C_0^\infty(\Omega)$, we would expect $\frac{\partial}{\partial \nu} \varphi = 0$, since $\varphi$ has compact support. But now, $C_0^\infty(\Omega)$ is (by definition) dense in $H_0^1(\Omega)$. This means, that every function in $H_0^1(\Omega)$ has not only zero trace but also a zero normal derivative trace. But we do not expect this for an arbitrary function from $H_0^1(\Omega) \cap C^1(\bar\Omega)$.
In order to define a normal derivative trace, you need a stronger norm in the domain, e.g. the norm of the space $$\{u \in H^1(\Omega) : \Delta u \in L^2(\Omega)\}.$$ Then, you can use your formula to define the normal derivative trace.