I need to prove that the sign of a permutation is equal to the sign of the inverse of the permutation. I understand it is true, but how do you proof that the #inversions of $\sigma$= #inversions of $\sigma^{-1}$? Can anyone help me out? I know that the inversions are not the same, I tried it with an example.
2026-04-06 11:39:01.1775475541
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The number of inversions in a permutation is equal to the number of its inverse permutation.
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Saying $\sigma$ inverts $i$ and $j$ means that $i$ and $j$ come in the opposite order to $\sigma(i)$ and $\sigma(j)$.
Therefore $\sigma$ inverts $i$ and $j$ if and only if $\sigma^{-1}$ inverts $\sigma(i)$ and $\sigma(j)$. This gives a one-to-one correspondence between the inversions of $\sigma$ and $\sigma^{-1}$.
Hint:
$$sgn(\sigma)\cdot sgn(\tau)=sgn(\sigma \tau)$$