Is it true that if $A$ and $B$ are two non-abelian finite simple groups, then the only finite group $G$ which has one copy of $A$ and one copy of $B$ as composition factors is $G = A \times B$? If not, could someone give a counterexample or even better, a reason why this isn't true?
Certainly, these are the two types of extensions we have to consider:
$$1 \to A \to G \to B \to 1$$ $$1 \to B \to G \to A \to 1$$
It seems true so for all the examples I tried, but I don't have definitive proof.
Here's an argument that doesn't assume that the extension is split. WLOG, let $A$ be a normal subgroup of $G$, with quotient isomorphic to $B$, both $A$ and $B$ being nonabelian simple (and everything finite).
Let $C$ be the centraliser of $A$ in $G$. Since $A$ is normal in $G$, so is $C$. Note also that $A\cap C=1$ hence $AC=A \times C$. It also follows that $C$ is isomorphic to a normal subgroup of $B$, so either $C=1$ or $C\cong B$. In the latter case, we get $G\cong A\times B$, as required. Otherwise, $C=1$ and by the N/C Theorem, $G$ embeds in $\mathrm{Aut}(A)$. In fact, a variation of this argument yields that $G/A$ embeds in $\mathrm{Out}(A)$. Now, as Derek pointed out, this $\mathrm{Out}(A)$ is soluble (by the Schreier Conjecture), which is a contradiction.