Think of the following: Suppose you want to prove for appropriate $n$ that $2^n>n^2$. Would the induction base be to verify for $n=1$? Try that and see what happens.
0
Bumbble Comm
On
Absolutely not.
You prove that a(n) implies a(n+1) for n >= N. Then you prove a(n) for 1 <= n <= N.
N can be large. I think I heard of practical cases where N >= 10^16.
0
user332714
On
No. Suppose some proposition $P(n)$ is true for all integer $n \ge 1$.
Take any integer $a$. Then the proposition $Q(n) := P(n-a)$ is true for all integer $n \ge a + 1$.
A proof by induction for $Q(n)$ would begin with base case $n = a + 1$, which is not necessarily $1$.
Think of the following: Suppose you want to prove for appropriate $n$ that $2^n>n^2$. Would the induction base be to verify for $n=1$? Try that and see what happens.