Let $f : \mathbb{C^∗} \rightarrow \mathbb{C}$ be the function defined by $f(z) := \ z \sin( \frac{1}{z})$. Then $\lim_{z\rightarrow 0} f(z)$
choos the correct option
$(a)$ is equal to zero.
$(b)$ does not exist.
$(c)$ is infinite.
$(d)$ is finite but not equal to zero.
My attempts : i thinks the option $d)$ will be correct
$\lim_{z\rightarrow 0} f(z)=\lim_{z\rightarrow 0}\ z \sin( \frac{1}{z})=1$
Is my answer correct or not ?
any hints/solution will be appreciated
If $z$ is complex.
Suppose $z$ were completly imaginary
$z = iy$ (with $y$ real)
$f(iy) = iy\sin \frac {1}{iy} = -iy\sin i\frac {1}{y} = y\sinh \frac {1}{y}$
$\lim_\limits{y\to 0} f(iy) = \infty$
If $z$ is real.
$\lim_\limits{x\to 0} f(x) = 0$
The limit does not exist.
Alternatively the Laurent series for $z\sin \frac{1}{z} = 1 - \frac {1}{6} z^{-2} + \frac {1}{5!} z^{-4} + \cdots$
And that limit does not exist as $z$ approaches $0.$