For any language $A$, $B$ and $C$ such that $A\subseteq B \subseteq C$, if both $A$ and $C$ are decidable, then $B$ is decidable.
True or False?
How can I find this?
For any language $A$, $B$ and $C$ such that $A\subseteq B \subseteq C$, if both $A$ and $C$ are decidable, then $B$ is decidable.
True or False?
How can I find this?
Here is a counterexample: take $A$ to be the empty language, $C$ to be the full language (with respect to the given alphabet), and $B$ to be any undecidable language.