Looking through some notes on model and computability theory, I noticed that the definition of the term 'theory' changed between them; in particular, the model theory (based on Hodges' text) defined a theory as "a set of sentences of a formal language", while the computability theory defined it as "a set of sentences of a formal language closed under the consequence relation in question".
This seems like a non-trivial difference, and wikipedia gives them separate names: 'theory' for the first, 'deductive theory' for the second. Is this standard? If not (and it's common to use both definitions), is there a reason the ambiguity isn't a problem?
Logicians are divided with regards to the definition of a "theory." Some take it to be just any set of sentences. Others take it to be a set of sentences closed under consequence. So you'll have to take caution when an author speaks of a "theory." Ultimately, it doesn't really make a huge difference: everything you can do with one definition you can do with the other. For instance, if you define theories as the former, and you want to talk about the latter, you can just talk about Cn($T$), i.e. the set of consequences of $T$. We're usually concerned with Cn($T$), so which definition you pick is a matter of preference.