At the first glance, I think that
There is some integer $n$ such that if $n > 2,$ then $n^2 = 2n.$
is false. Even with careful contemplation, I still think that it is false.
However, I also agree with the answer key that the above statement is vacuously true, because $$2>2 \rightarrow 2^2 = 2(2)$$ is true, because $2>2$ is false.
I do not know how to resolve this. Anyone has a way to explain it?


If $A$ is false then $A \to B$ is always true, no matter what $B$ is. So just take an $n$ for which the first clause $n > 2$ is false, and then "if $n > 2$ then $B$" is true.
Similarly "if I am a unicorn then pigs can fly" is a true statement, since I am in fact not a unicorn. And "There is some person $A$ such that if $A$ is a unicorn then pigs can fly" is true as long as there is some person who is not a unicorn.
I suspect your confusion may be caused by the given statement looking almost like "There is some $n > 2$ such that $n^2 = 2 n$": in fact students often write "There is some $n$ such that if $n > 2$ then $\ldots$ when they mean ""There is some $n > 2$ such that $\ldots$". But the two statements are quite different.