I recently stumbled upon the following article:
This article claims to prove that the values of the Riemann Zeta function at all odd positive integers are irrational. Last time I checked, this problem was categorized as "near to impossible with the current state of number theory". Naturally, I am a bit skeptic on whether this proof is correct. However, I do not have the time (or more precisely the required skill) to verify the proof by myself.
Is the proof in the above paper correct?
As shown in the comment section, the claim was withdrawn by the author.