With $f(x)$ a function of $x$ and $x(t)$ a function of time does $\frac{df(x)}{dt}=0 $ ?
thanks.
No it is not $0$.
By the chain rule;
$\frac{d(f(x(t)))}{dt} = f'(x(t))\cdot x'(t)$
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No it is not $0$.
By the chain rule;
$\frac{d(f(x(t)))}{dt} = f'(x(t))\cdot x'(t)$