How to evaluate the integral $$ \int_{0}^{1}x^{m-1}(1-x)^{n-1}\log{x}dx, ~\Re(m), \Re(n)>0.$$ My idea is to use Beta function, but here the limits are already from $0$ to $1$. Which substitution will work such that limits remain same and we can also remove logarithm?
To evaluate integral using Beta function
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If we throw the rigorousness of math out of the window just now, it's not hard to see that this integral probably equals to \begin{align*} I_{\alpha,\beta}&=\int_0^1{x^{\alpha -1}\left( x-1 \right) ^{\beta -1}}\ln \left( x \right) \mathrm{d}x \\& =\partial _{\alpha}\left[ \mathrm{B}\left( \alpha ,\beta \right) \right] \\& =\partial _{\alpha}\left[ \frac{\Gamma \left( \alpha \right) \Gamma \left( \beta \right)}{\Gamma \left( \alpha +\beta \right)} \right] \\& =\frac{\Gamma '\left( \alpha \right) \Gamma \left( \alpha +\beta \right) \Gamma \left( \beta \right) -\Gamma \left( \alpha \right) \Gamma '\left( \alpha +\beta \right) \Gamma \left( \beta \right)}{\Gamma ^2\left( \alpha +\beta \right)} \\& =\frac{\Gamma \left( \alpha \right) \Gamma \left( \beta \right)}{\Gamma \left( \alpha +\beta \right)}\left[ \mathrm{\psi}_0\left( \alpha \right) -\mathrm{\psi}_0\left( \alpha +\beta \right) \right] \end{align*} To prove this full-on, you might want to take a look at Lebesgue's Dominated Convergence theorem in measure theorey to see when you can interchange the partial derivatives and the integral.
I'll use some probability theory here.
Changing the writing yields $$B(m,n)\int_{0}^{1}\log{x}\frac{x^{m-1}(1-x)^{n-1}}{B(m,n)}dx$$ The term $\frac{x^{m-1}(1-x)^{n-1}}{B(m,n)}$ represents the density $f(x;m,n)$of a random variable $X$ that is Beta distributed , hence $$B(m,n)\int_{0}^{1}\log{x}\frac{x^{m-1}(1-x)^{n-1}}{B(m,n)}dx$$ $$=B(m,n)\mathbb E\left[\log(X)\right]$$ $$=\frac{\Gamma(m)\Gamma(n)}{\Gamma(m+n)}\left[\psi(m)-\psi(m+n)\right]$$ where $\psi$ represents the Digamma function