I have been given $ \{X_n;n>0\}$ as a sequence of i.i.d random variables and we another sequence $ \{Y_n;n>0\}$ defined such that $$Y_n=X_n+aX_{n-1}$$ where a is a real constant
I need to show that $ \{Y_n;n>0\}$ is a strictly stationary process. Now my usual approach to prove a strictly stationary process is to prove that the all the random variables $Y_n$ are independent but I don't think this is necessarily true in this case since the sum of iid RVs is not necessarily an iid itself.
Any hint on how to proceed?
Obviously the sequence $\{X_n\}_{n\geq1}$ is strictly stationary (independence, as you mention). It is left to verify that the function which maps $\{X_n\}_{n\geq1}$ to $\{Y_n\}_{n\geq1}$ behaves “well” when you shift the argument. I will leave you to discover what “well” means here.
EDIT:
The above was a hint. Since it might not have been entirely clear what I meant I decided to provide a full solution as well.
Firstly, it is not clear how $Y_1$ is defined. If one were to define $Y_1:=X_1$ then $\{Y_n\}_{n\geq1}$ is not strictly stationary (unless $a=0$). To get strict stationarity one has to introduce $X_0$ which is independent of $\{X_n\}_{n\geq1}$ and has the same distribution as $X_1$. Then the definition of $Y_n$ also makes sense for $n=1$. Notation wise, however, this is a bit annoying since the sequences $\{X_n\}_{n\geq0}$ and $\{Y_n\}_{n\geq1}$ start at different index. Instead I think the best fix is to change the definition of $Y_n$ slightly. I will define $Y'_n:=X_{n+1}+aX_n$. Note that $\{Y'_n\}_{n\geq1}\sim\{Y_n\}_{n\geq1}$ so we may prove strict stationarity for $\{Y'_n\}_{n\geq1}$ instead.
For $N\in\mathbb{N}$ let $\theta^N$ be the function which maps a sequence $\{x_n\}_{n\geq1}$ of real numbers to the shifted sequence $\{x_{N+n}\}_{n\geq1}$. By definition $\{Y'_n\}_{n\geq1}$ is strictly stationary if $\theta^N(\{Y'_n\}_{n\geq1})\sim\{Y'_n\}_{n\geq1}$ for all $N\in\mathbb{N}$.
As I mention it is fairly obvious that $\{X_n\}_{n\geq1}$ is strictly stationary because it is an i.i.d. sequence. Since the this is simple to prove I am happy to do it here. To show that $\theta^N(\{X_n\}_{n\geq1})\sim\{X_n\}_{n\geq1}$ for some $N\in\mathbb{N}$ we must prove that all finite dimensional distributions are identical. We take integers $0\leq n_1<n_2<\dotsc<n_m$ for some $m\in\mathbb{B}$ and immediately see that $$ (X_{N+n_1},\dotsc,X_{N+n_m})\sim(X_{n_1},\dotsc,X_{n_m}). $$ Indeed, since the $X_n$'s are i.i.d. the left- and right-hand side both have distribution $P_{X_1}^{\otimes m}$ (product measure of $P_{X_1}$ $m$ times), where $P_{X_1}$ is the distribution of $X_1$.
We will then consider the function $f$ which maps $\{X_n\}_{n\geq1}$ to $\{Y'_n\}_{n\geq1}$. To be precise $$ f(\{x_n\}_{n\geq1})_m=x_{m+1}+ax_{m} $$ for $m\in\mathbb{N}$. This function has an important property, namely that $f\circ\theta^N=\theta^N\circ f$ for all $N\in\mathbb{N}$. Indeed, $$ f(\theta^N(\{x_n\}_{n\geq1}))_m=x_{N+m+1}+ax_{N+m}=\theta^N(f(\{x_n\}_{n\geq1}))_m $$ for all $m\in\mathbb{N}$.
The stationarity of $\{Y'_n\}_{n\geq1}$ is obtained from the observations above. We simply see that $$ \theta^N(\{Y'_n\}_{n\geq1})=\theta^N(f(\{X_n\}_{n\geq1}))=f(\theta^N(\{X_n\}_{n\geq1}))\sim f(\{X_n\}_{n\geq1})=\{Y_n\}_{n\geq1} $$ for any $N\in\mathbb{N}$.