We have, $f(x)=x^n + a_{n-1}x^{n-1} + \cdots + a_0 \in \mathbb{Z}[x]$, with $\alpha_i\in\mathbb{C},\ 1\leq i\leq n$ being all the roots of $f(x)$. If we have $|\alpha_i|=1$, for every $i$, then $\alpha_i$ is a root of 1.
Edit: As discussed in comments, I seem to have interpreted the problem incorrectly the first time around.
Essentially, we have to show that ${\alpha_i}^k =1$, for some $k>n$.
Note: This question was posed after a class on Units, including Dirichlet's Unit Theorem.
So I need some hint to help me get to the answer
Let us collect the comments into an answer. By Newton's identities the power sums $$ p(k) = \alpha_1^k+\ldots+\alpha_n^k $$ are integer numbers, and they belong to the $[-n,n]$ interval by the triangle inequality.
If $\alpha$ is a root of $f(x)$ then $\overline{\alpha}=\alpha^{-1}$ is also a root of $f(x)$ and by letting $\theta_i=\text{Arg}(\alpha_i)$ we have $$ \cos(k\theta_1)+\ldots+\cos(k\theta_n)\in [-n,n]\cap\mathbb{Z} $$ for any $k\in\mathbb{N}$. If all the angles $\theta_i$ are rational multiples of $\pi$ there is nothing to prove.
Let us assume that $\theta_1\not\in\pi\mathbb{Q}$. In such a case, by the Lindemann-Weierstrass theorem we have that $\cos(k\theta_1)$ is a trascendental number over $\mathbb{Q}$ for any $k\in\mathbb{N}^+$. On the other hand $p(k)$ may only take a finite number of values, so for some $j\in[-n,n]$ there are infinite $k\in\mathbb{N}$ such that $p(k)=j$. Additionally $\cos(k\theta)=T_k(\cos\theta)$, hence by elimination of variables we get that some algebraic combination (with coefficients in $\mathbb{Q}$) of $\cos(k_1\theta_1),\cos(k_2\theta_1),\ldots,\cos(k_M \theta_1)$ equals zero. This contradicts the fact that $\cos(\theta_1)$ is trascendental over $\mathbb{Q}$, proving the claim.