Given the IVP $y'=2√y, y(0)=0$. I find $y=x^2$ as the only solution to the problem. But I am asked to show that it does not have a unique solution. Is there a mistake or am I just wrong? Is there a sufficient condition for the existence of more than one solution to an IVP?
2026-03-30 00:03:52.1774829032
To show that this IVP does/does not have a unique solution
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This is a standard type of example problem to illustrate the difference of the Cauchy-Peano and Picard-Lindelöf theorems. You get any of $$ y(x)=\begin{cases}0,&x<c,\\(x-c)^2,&x\ge c,\end{cases} $$ as valid solutions to this IVP.