Is it true that while using transfinite induction we dont need to prove the zero case? because, if we want to prove some property $ \psi $ , we assume that for any $ x\in A $ if for any $ y\leq x $ it follows that if $ \psi\left(y\right) $ then also $ \psi\left(x\right) $ holds. the minimum object $a\in A $ also follows that $ a\leq x $. So should we prove for the zero case ?
If not, I'll be glad to see some counterexample where we can prove a wrong argument just because we havent proved the first case. Thanks
You are (almost) correct. Actually:
We want to prove some property $\psi$ ,
We prove that $$ (\forall x \in A)\big[(\forall y \in A)(y<x \rightarrow\psi(y))\;\rightarrow\; \psi(x)\big] \tag1$$ Then we may conclude that $$ (\forall x \in A)(\psi(x)) \tag2$$
And of course if $0$ is the least element of $A$, then $$ (\forall y \in A)(y<0 \rightarrow\psi(y)) \tag3$$ is vacuously true. So if we proved $(1)$, then taking $x=0$ we conclude $\psi(0)$ with no additional effort.
Stated the other way: if the "base case" $\psi(0)$ is false, then since (vacuously) $(3)$ is true, we have that (1) is false.