The model was described many times before, so I keep the details concise. We have $$ \frac{\partial}{\partial t} \rho(t,a) + \frac{\partial}{\partial a} \rho(t,a) = -\delta(a) \rho(t,a) $$ where $\rho$ is population (number) density and $\delta$ is instantaneous mortality. Moreover, $$ \Pi(a) = \exp \left( - \int_{0}^{a} \delta (\alpha) d\alpha \right) $$ is the probability of surviving to age $a$. According to Cushing (1998) one can redefine $$ \psi(t,a) = \frac{\rho(t,a)}{\Pi(a)} $$ such that the McKendrick PDE above simplifies to $$ \frac{\partial}{\partial t} \psi(t,a) + \frac{\partial}{\partial a} \psi(t,a) = 0 $$ leading to a traveling-wave solution $\psi(t,a) = \varphi(t-a)$.
What I'm wondering is how this kind of simplification is possible when there is a maximum age $a_{M} < \infty$? Because then $\Pi(a_{M}) = 0$, leaving $\psi(t,a)$ undefined. Cushing doesn't mention anything in that regard, so am I missing something trivial?
$\Pi$ cannot have any zeros if it is defined as
$$\Pi(a)=\exp\left(-\int_0^a \delta(a)da\right)$$
since the exponential function has no zeros. That being said, in real life, there is presumably an age after which the probability of living is zero. If you want to include that possibility in your model, then $\delta(a)$ will not be well-defined, since it is given by
$$\delta(a)=\Pi'(a)/\Pi(a)$$
In this case, the original McKendrick equation cannot be posed.