The trivial zeros of the Riemann zeta function are negative even integers. But I don't understand how that makes sense with the original definition of the function. $\zeta(-2) = \sum_{n=1}^{\infty} n^2$,
which is the sum of squares of natural numbers. How does this sum to zero? Am I missing something obvious?
In short, the Riemann zeta function is not defined through the series you mention for its entire domain. Only for those complex $z$ with $\mathfrak R(z)>1$ is the Riemann zeta function defined by
$$\zeta(z)=\sum_{n=1}^\infty\frac1{n^z}$$
For all other complex numbers in its domain, an analytic continuation is used. That is why $\zeta(-2)=0$ can be true even though the series diverges. $\mathfrak R(-2)=-2\le1$, and as such, $\zeta(-2)$ is not defined through the series.
You can find the full definition of the Riemann zeta function here.