Determine if the statement is true or false. If true provide a proof or give a counterexample if the statement is false.
Any set $S$ containing a countable set $T$ must be uncountable.
Can someone help me to see whether the statement is true or false?
Part of me wants to say the statement is true. If we let the set S be the set of real numbers and T be the set of rational numbers. Does this proof satisfy the generalized statement though?
There are a few things to draw out from this.
To show that the "theorem" is true, you're going to have to prove that whenever your worst enemy hands you a set $S$ and a countably infinite subset $T$ of $S$, then $S$ is uncountably infinite (however maliciously your enemy chose $T$ and $S$).
To show that the "theorem" is false, it's enough to find a single set $S$ with a single countably infinite subset $T$, such that $S$ is not uncountable.
Hint: every set is a subset of itself.