If $f(z)$ is analytic in a simply connected domain D and continuous in $\bar{D}$, then $\oint_{\partial D}f(z)dz=0$.
I think we can say this is true but I am having a hard time forming a proof other than since it is continuous on the boundary, we can't have any new singularities from the analytic domain to the boundary.
The answer to the question is "yes" subject to some geometric details. There is an explanation at https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cauchy%27s_integral_theorem. Here's the relevant paragraph.
Unfortunately, I don't have access to the Kodaira reference.