I am trying to evaluate
$$I = \int^{\infty}_0 (y^{\frac{1}{2}}e^{-\frac{1}{2}y})dy$$
using the fact that
$$\int^{\infty}_0 (e^{-x^2})dx = \frac{\sqrt{\pi}}{2}$$
Not sure how to do this. I tried transforming with $y=2x^2$ substitution, but found this suggests
$$I = \sqrt{2} \int^{\infty}_0 (xe^{-x^2})dx$$
By this point Wolfram tells me I've made a mistake as evaluating the above definite integral yields
$$I=\frac{\sqrt{2}}{2}$$
which does not involve $\sqrt{\pi}$ and is surely incorrect. Any help?
When I substitute $y=2x^2$ I get $$I=4\sqrt2\int_0^\infty x^2e^{-x^2}\,dx.$$ By integration by parts, this can be reduced to the usual "probability integral" $$\int_0^\infty e^{-x^2}\,dx.$$