The picture below is the solution to the following problem as presented in my book:
Find the area of the region that lies inside both curves $$r = 8 + \cos \theta \\r = 8 − \cos θ$$

According to my book, it is possible to solve the problem in such a way because of "symmetry" but does not explain what "symmetry" means. From my basic understanding of the meaning of the word in every day usage, I can see that a reflection over the vertical axis, in this case, does not affect the shape of the graph, and I can also intuitively see that $$A = 4\int_0^\frac{\pi}{2}\frac{1}{2}(6-\cos\theta)^2d\theta$$ This, as it turns out, is true but is not satisfying because it was an intuitive guess. So, what is the mathematical definition of symmetry and how can one show that this graph is symmetric? i.e. how to explain mathematically that this problem could be solved using "symmetry"?
Purely for fun, let's break up the integral from $0$ to $\pi/2$ into two integrals, $0$ to $\pi/4$ and $\pi/4$ to $\pi/2$. For the second integral, make the change of variable $\phi=\pi/2-\theta$. Note that $\cos\theta=\sin \phi$. So our integral becomes $$\int_0^{\pi/4}\frac{1}{2}(6-\cos\theta)^2\,d\theta + \int_0^{\pi/4}\frac{1}{2}(6-\sin\phi)^2\,d\phi.$$ Change the second variable back to $\theta$. We get that our area is $$\frac{1}{2}\int_0^{\pi/4}\left[(6-\cos\theta)^2+(6-\sin\theta)^2\right]\,d\theta.$$ Expand, integrate, noting that $\sin^2\theta+\cos^2\theta=1$. An antiderivative is $$\frac{1}{2}\left[73\theta -12(\sin\theta-\cos\theta)\right].$$ "Plug in," noting that at $0$ we have $\sin\theta-\cos\theta=-1$. We end up with $\frac{73\pi}{8} -6$. Then multiply by $4$.
We took advantage of a polar "symmetry" about $r=6$. The bonus is that we didn't have to integrate $\cos^2\theta$. It is not clear whether it was worth it.