Let $$A=\{\frac{1}{2^2},\frac{1}{3^2},\frac{1}{5^2},...\}$$ be the set of squares of the reciprocals of prime numbers.
We have $$\sum_{x\in A}x < \infty$$ Do there exist $B \subset A$, $C \subset A$, $B \cap C = \emptyset$, such that $$\sum_{x\in B}x = \sum_{x\in C}x \ \ \ \ \ ?$$ It is important that we deal with primes and not with all natural numbers, otherwise we would have infinitely many solutions with both $B$ and $C$ finite, as described in Wikipedia, a type of solution which cannot solve this problem by W-t-P's answer below.
Assuming that $B$ and $C$ (are finite and) have the required property, denote by $P$ the product of all primes $p$ with $1/p^2\in B$, and by $Q$ the product of all primes $p$ with $1/p^2\in C$. Then the LHS of $\sum_{x\in B}x=\sum_{x\in C}x$ would be a rational number which, reduced to its lower terms, has its denominator equal to $\prod_{p\in P} p^2$, while the RHS has the denominator equal to $\prod_{p\in Q}p^2$. By the uniqueness of prime decomposition, we would then have $P=Q$, a contradiction.