This is not a homework exercise!
Let $U \subset \mathbb{R}^d$ be and open subset and $D \subset U$ open and dense in $U$. Can we conclude that $\lambda(D) = \lambda(U)$?
Here, $\lambda$ denotes the $d$-dimensional Lebesgue measure.
This condition is trivially true for any $\lambda$-null set $U$. For the general case, I think this boils down to the question whether a $\lambda$-non null set $A$ such that $\lambda(A) > 0$ has a non-empty interior: $\mathring{A} \neq \emptyset$. Since then, we could argue that $\lambda(U \setminus D) = 0$, which implies the highlighted proposition.
I´d be grateful for a proof or counterexample for any of the two statements.
Thanks in advance :)
First, let $\tau_d := \frac{\pi^{\frac{d}{2}}}{\Gamma\left(\frac{n}{2} + 1\right)}$ the volume of the $d$-dimensional unit sphere and $\Gamma(x)$ the gamma function. Then, $\lambda(B(x,r)) = \tau_d r^d$.
As @copperhat suggests in the comments, a counterexample for the first statement goes as follows:
Therefore, we can get $\lambda(D)$ to be as small as we want, and it will be still open as union of open sets an dense since it contain all $q \in \mathbb{Q} \cap U$.
@Will_M. gives a great counterexample for the second proposition: the fat cantor set.