I'm trying to calculate the pseudo-inverse of $A^TA$ as described in this paper:
The SVD is particularly simple to calculate when the matrix is of the form $A^TA$ because $U=V$ and the rows of $U$ are the eigenvectors of $A^TA$ and the singular values in $D$ are the eigenvalues of $A^TA$. Since $U$ and $V$ are orthogonal matrices, the inverse of $M$ is then $M^{-1}=V^TD^{-1}U$
Since the pseudo-inverse of a non-singular matrix is it's inverse I tried to do this with a non-singular matrix and see if I get the inverse. I tried it with the following:
$A^TA = \begin{pmatrix} 90 & 51 \\ 51 & 29 \end{pmatrix}$ where $A = \begin{pmatrix} 3 & 2 \\ 9 & 5 \end{pmatrix}$
Eigenvalues and eigenvectors:
$\lambda_1 = 118.9243;$ $\lambda_2=0.0757;$ $v_1 = \begin{pmatrix} 1 \\ 0.5671 \end{pmatrix};$ $v_2 = \begin{pmatrix} 1 \\ -1.7632 \end{pmatrix}$
$U = V=\begin{pmatrix} 1 & 0.5671 \\ 1 & -1.7632 \end{pmatrix}$ $D = \begin{pmatrix} 118.9243 & 0\\ 0 & 0.0757 \end{pmatrix}$
And my result is:
$V^TD^{-1}U= \begin{pmatrix} 13.22 & -23.29 \\ -23.29 & 41.07 \end{pmatrix} \neq (A^TA)^{-1}$
Can someone help me? What am I doing wrong?
$V$ should be an orthogonal matrix and its two rows should be a set of two orthonormal eigenvectors of $A^TA$. Therefore the correct $V$ should be $\pmatrix{\frac{v_1^T}{\|v_1\|}\\ \frac{v_2^T}{\|v_2\|}}$, but you wrongly took $V$ as $\pmatrix{v_1^T\\ v_2^T}$ without normalising the eigenvectors.