I know that
- $(v-w)>(x-y)$
- $(v-w), (x-y) > 0 $
- $(a-b)<(c-d)$
- $(a-b), (c-d)<0$
- $v,w,x,y,a,b,c,d>0$
Can I conclude from this that $(v*a-w*b)>(x*c-y*d)$?
2026-03-03 19:25:49.1772565949
Under which conditions does (v-w)>(x-y) imply (v*a-w*b)>(x*c-y*d)?
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