This is part of practice midterm that I have been given (our prof doesn't post any solutions to it) I'd like to know whats right before I write the midterm on Monday this was actually a 4 part question, I'm posting just 1 piece as a question in its own cause it was much too long.
Let $G$ be an abelian group.
Suppose that $a$ is in $G$ and has order $m$ (such that $m$ is finite) and that the positive integer $k$ divides $m$.
(ii) Let $a$ be in $G$ and $l$ be a positive integer. State the theorem which says $\langle a^l\rangle=\langle a^k\rangle$ for some $k$ which divides $m$.
I have a theorem in my textbook that says as follows.
Let G be a finite cyclic group of order n with $a \in G$ as a generator for any integer m, the subgroup generated by $a^{m}$ is the same as the subgroup generated by $ a^{d}$ where $d=(m,n)$.
if this is the correct theorem can someone please show me why? thanks
I'll prove a more general of fact about cyclic groups, which would be good to know. Every subgroup of a cyclic group $\langle a\rangle$ of order $m$ is cyclic of order $l$ dividing $m$. For each $l$ dividing $m$, there is exactly one subgroup of order $l$: it is $\langle a^{m/l}\rangle$. The question ii) follows immediately from that.
Since $\langle a\rangle$ is isomorphic to $\mathbb{Z}_m$ via $n\longmapsto a^n$, it suffices to work in $\mathbb{Z}_m$.
Let $H$ be a subgroup of $\mathbb{Z}_m$. We can assume $H\neq\{0\}$, and we consider its smallest positive element $k$ in $\{0,\ldots,n-1\}$.
By Euclidean division, every $h\in H$ can be written $h=qk+r$ with $0\leq r<k$. Now note that $qk$ belongs to $H$, so $r=h-qh$ lies in $H$. By minimality of $k$, we must have $r=0$. So $h=qk$. This proves that $H\subseteq \langle k\rangle $. The converse is obvious.
So $H$ is cyclic, generated by $k$, its smallest positive element. If $l$ denotes the order of $H$, i.e. the order of $k$, we must have $$H=\{0,k,2k,\ldots,(l-1)k\}\qquad\mbox{and}\qquad kl=m.$$
It is now clear that for each $l$ dividing $m$, there is exactly one subgroup of order $l$. And it is cyclic. This finishes to prove the claims above.
Finally, let us prove the claim you stated in this context: $H=\langle j\rangle$ and consider $k=\gcd(j,m)$. Since $k$ divides $j$, we clearly have $H=\langle j\rangle\subseteq \langle k\rangle$. Now assume $kn$ belongs to the latter. By Bezout, there exist $u,v$ such that $k=uj+vm$. So $kn=ujn+vmn\equiv ujn [m]$. Hence $kn$ belongs to $H=\langle j\rangle$. So we do have $H=\langle j\rangle=\langle k\rangle=\langle \gcd(j,m) \rangle$.
Applying the above to some $H=\langle a^j\rangle$ yields two ways of getting $k$ dividing $m$ such that $H=\langle a^k\rangle$. The second is more explicit since we take $k=\gcd(j,m)$.