I have a book about group theory and there was the following question:
Let $G$ be a set of all the real matrices in the following form: $\begin{pmatrix}a & b\\ -b & a \end{pmatrix}$ when $a^2+b^2>0$.
- Prove that $G$ is a group.
- Prove that $G\cong (C^\times,\cdot )$.
I successfully proved that $G$ is a group. Now I'm trying to prove the second sub-question. In the book they suggested to declare the following function:
$$ f:\begin{pmatrix}a & b\\ -b & a \end{pmatrix} \to a+ib$$
Also they wrote "obviously $f$ is bijection", and then they proved the Homomorphism equation. The only part that I didn't understand is why $f$ is a bijection, and why it is so obvious? How can I prove it formally?
Since $\mathbb{C}^\times=\mathbb{C}\setminus\{0\}$ and since each $z\in\mathbb{C}\setminus\{0\}$ can be written in one and only one way as $a+bi$ with $a$ and $b$ not both equal to $0$ ($\iff a^2+b^2>0$), it is clear that $f$ is a bijection.