We have begun learning quotient rings in my Algebra course, but I am still confused by some of the theorems and properties of quotient rings.
We have a theorem:
$R$ is a ring, and $I\subset R$ is an ideal. Then there is a unique multiplication on $R/I$ making it into a ring such that $$\pi:R\rightarrow R/I$$ defined by $a\mapsto a+I$ is a ring homomorphism with $\ker \pi = I$.
I am confused why $\ker \pi = I$ is true.
If we take $R=\mathbb{Z}[x]$ and $I=(x^{2}+7)$, then we have $$\phi(x^{2}+7) = \phi(x^{2})+\phi(7) = \phi(x)^{2}+\phi(7) = \phi(x)^{2}+7+k(x^{2}+7) =0$$ I am not understanding why $\phi(x^{2}+7)=0$ must hold?
I am working on a problem where I must show that two quotient rings are not isomorphic, and I am struggling because I am still not quite understanding the properties of quotient rings other than the fact that it is an additive coset of an ideal $I$ in $R$.
Any insight is appreciated!
the ideal of $\mathbb{Z}[x]$ generated by the polynomial $x^2+7$ is denoted $I=(x^{2}+7)$ and its elements i.e. the equivalence classes of the quotient $\mathbb{Z}[x]/I$ are denoted $$\overline{f(x)}=f(x)+I\equiv f(x)+(x^2+7)$$ Intuitively these elements can be thought of as being obtained by setting $x^2+7=0$ in $f(x)$. So the projection $$\phi:\mathbb{Z}[x]\rightarrow \mathbb{Z}[x]/(x^2+7)$$ given by $\phi(f)=\bar{f}$ consists of performing the euclidean division of $f(x)$ with $x^2+7$ and keeping the remainder: $$f(x)=(x^2+7)q(x)+r(x)$$
and $$\phi\big(f(x)\big)=\overline{f(x)}=r(x)$$ Concluding: $x^2+7$ and its polynomial multiples are identically zero in the quotient ring $\mathbb{Z}[x]/(x^2+7)$.
An immediate consequence of the above is that the notation $\overline{f(x)}$ collectively identifies all integer polynomials $f(x)$, $g(x)$ which differ by a polynomial multiple of $x^2+7$: $$f(x)-g(x)=k(x)(x^2+7)\Leftrightarrow \overline{f(x)}=\overline{g(x)}$$ where $k(x)\in\mathbb{Z}[x]$.