I'm having some trouble grasping the validity of the logical underpinnings of the proof by contradiction method.
The following is the basic structure I've been presented with:
To prove a statement $P$, assume $\lnot P$. From $\lnot P$, derive some statement $R$ that is contradictory to some known fact or assumption we made in the proof. Thus, the contradiction $C: R \land\lnot R$ is true. Thus, $\lnot P \implies C$ is t true. However, since $C$ is a contradiction and always false, it must be that $\lnot P$ is false, thus $P$ is true.
My questions are as follows:
- I thought that the definition of a contradiction is something that is always false. Thus, how can we say that $C$ is ever true? Is it the case that the proof exists within its own logical "universe" as it were?
- If we are able to say that $C$ is true and thus $\lnot P \implies C$ is true, how are we then able to say that $\lnot P \implies C$ remains true when we then say that $C$, being a contradiction, must be false? I would think that $C$ being false would abrogate the validity of the implication as well.
The contradiction $C$ is only true under the premise $\neg P$. That is, the implication $\neg P \Rightarrow C$ is true. We cannot conclude from this that $C$ is true, unless we know $\neg P$ is true. However, $\neg P$ is only taken as a premise, not an axiom or truth.
The implication $\neg P \Rightarrow C$ does not tell us anything about the truth value of $C$, unless we know that $\neg P$ is true. We know that if $\neg P$ were true, then $C$ would be true. This is different from saying $\neg P$ is true and thus $C$ is true. The implication "$A\Rightarrow B$" can hold true even if $B$ does not hold true - in fact, the only way this happens is if $A$ is false. In our case, $A$ is $\neg P$, so $A$ being false means $\neg P$ is false, so $P$ is true.