I recently came across this proposition in my math textbook:
Let $D: \mathbb{R}^3 \times \mathbb{R}^3 \times \mathbb{R}^3 \rightarrow \mathbb{R}$ be a multilinear, alternating map such that $D(a_1,a_2,a_3)=1$. Let $v_1,v_2,v_3 \in V$. If $D(v_1,v_2,v_3) = 0$ then $span(v_1,v_2,v_3) \neq \mathbb{R}^3$.
It is strange to me how my linear algebra textbook can make such a bold claim without an accompanying proof or explanation. I would greatly appreciate it if someone could help me understand what the last statement is claiming exactly and if there is a proof available that can help me arrive at this statement. Thank you and any insights are greatly appreciated.
It's a well known result that the determinant can be defined as the unique $n$-alternating multilinear map which is $1$ at the basis $\{e_1, \cdots, e_n\}$ (see here). Your desired result follows immediately from this, for then the claim $D(v_1, v_2, v_3) = 0$ is equivalent to $v_1, v_2, v_3$ being linearly dependent, hence they can't generate all of $\mathbb{R}^3$.