I'm working with Eberlein- Smulian Theorem fromm the book "Topics in Banach Space Theory". During the proof I have seen that there is used a lot the concept of weak topology and weak star topology. For a given Banach space X according to the definitions the weak topology is defined on X and the weak star topology is defined on the dual space X* . While trying to understand the proof I see that for a set A in X there is considered the weak* closure W of A in X** . *I don't understand how we can speak about the weak and weak-star closure of a set A in X, since the weak-star closure, to me, makes sense only for sets in X **. I am really struggling with this issue! Is anybody who can tell me which is the clue here? The set A to which I am referring is used to prove that (iii) implies (i) in the last paragraph of the theorem. Any advice would be really appreciated! 
2026-04-26 08:41:16.1777192876
Understanding the relation of weak and weak star toplogy
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The short answer relies on two facts:
As a side remark, the weak topology on $X$ coincides with the subscpace topology inherited from $X^{**}$ with the weak* topology, since both are derived from the functionals in $X^*$.