I'm trying to understand why $f*\overline{f}$ is homotopic to $e_{x_0}$, where $\overline{f}$ is the inverse of $f$.
Munkres' "Topology" gives an explanation which I am not sure I understand, and links like these (pg. 3) only end up confusing me further. Where did $f_1$ and $f_0$ come from? They have not been defined earlier!
Edit: I am looking for an explanation of this. My attempts at understanding this from other online links has been largely futile.
Any help would be greatly appreciated.

In the linked PDF on page 3
So $f_t$ is like $f$, only that it stops at time $1-t$ and stays at the point $f(1-t)$ during the remaining time $[1-t,1]$. The reverse path $g_t$ has starting point $f(1-t)$, but it is fixed at that point during $[0,t]$ and only starts moving at time $t$, so $g(s)=f(1-s)$. In particular, $$f_0=f \text{ and } f_1=f(1-1)=f(0)=x_0$$ A homotopy $F$ is given by $$F(s,t)=(f_t\cdot g_t)(s)= \begin{cases}f(2s), &\text{ if }2s\le 1-t\\ f(1-t), &\text{ if }1-t\le2s\le1+t\\ f(2-2s), &\text{ if }2s-1\ge t \end{cases}$$