Let $I_{\nu}(\cdot)$ be the modified Bessel function of the first kind of order $\nu$. Can someone please confirm if, when $\nu\rightarrow\infty$, the following approximation
$$\frac{I_{\frac{\nu}{2}}(\frac{\nu}{2}x)}{I_{\frac{\nu}{2}-1}(\frac{\nu}{2}x)}=\frac{x}{1+(1+x^{2})^{1/2}}+O\!\left(\frac{1}{\nu}\right)$$
holds uniformly with respect to $x$? How can I show this?
Thanks for any help.
If you look at this paper and, in particular at equation $(3.3a)$ $$\frac{I_{n}(x)}{I_{n-1}(x)}=\frac {x}{2n+x\frac{I_{n+1}(x)}{I_{n}(x)}} $$ you then end with $$\frac{I_{n}(nx)}{I_{n-1}(nx)}=\frac {x}{2+x\frac{I_{n+1}(nx)}{I_{n}(nx)}} $$ So, solving for $L$ equation $$L=\frac x{2+x L}\implies L=\frac{x}{1+\sqrt{1+x^{2}}}$$