Uniform convergence of: $$f_n(x):={(1-\frac{x^2}{n})^n}$$
(a) In a closed interval $[-L, L]$ as $L>0$.
(b) In $\mathbb{R}$.
My try:
There is a pointwise convergence to $e^{-x^2}$.
Obviously, there is no uniform convergence in $\mathbb{R}$ as $\lim\limits _{x\to \infty }|f_n(x)|=\infty$.$\;$ Thus, $\sup \limits _{x\in\mathbb{R}}|f_n(x)-e^{-x^2}|= \infty$
Can anyone give a direction for a closed interval?
Using the basic inequalities $e^y \geqslant 1 +y$ and $e^{-y} \geqslant 1 - y$ for $0 \leqslant y \leqslant 1$ we can show that for $x^2 < n$,
$$\left(1- \frac{x^2}{n}\right)^n \leqslant e^{-x^2}\leqslant \left(1+ \frac{x^2}{n}\right)^{-n}.$$
Applying the Bernoulli inequality $(1 - x^4/n^2)^n \geqslant 1 - x^4/n,$ we get
$$0 \leqslant e^{-x^2} - \left(1- \frac{x^2}{n}\right)^n = e^{-x^2}\left[1 - e^{x^2}\left(1- \frac{x^2}{n}\right)^{n}\right]\\ \leqslant e^{-x^2}\left[1 - \left(1+ \frac{x^2}{n}\right)^{n}\left(1- \frac{x^2}{n}\right)^{n}\right]\\= e^{-x^2}\left[1 - \left(1- \frac{x^4}{n^2}\right)^{n}\right]\leqslant e^{-x^2}\frac{x^4}{n}.$$
For $x \in [-L,L]$, the RHS is bounded by $L^4/n$, which proves uniform convergence.