If a sequence of continuous functions $p_n:E \rightarrow \mathbb{R}$ - where $E$ is a complete metric space - converge uniformly to the function $p$, does that mean for any sequence $\{x_n\} \subset E$ such that $x_n \rightarrow x$, $p_n(x_n) \rightarrow p(x)$?
My approach: Fix $n$. Pick $k > n$. $|p_n(x_n)-p(x)| = |p_n(x_n)-p_n(x_k) + p_n(x_k)- p(x)| \leq |p_n(x_n)-p_n(x_k)|+|p_n(x_k)- p(x)| $, which holds for all $k$, so taking limits on $k$, $|p_n(x_n)-p(x)| \leq |p_n(x_n)-p_n(x)|+|p_n(x)- p(x)|$. Here again I'm back to square one as both the argument and the function is changing with $n$ in the first part. Any help is appreciated.
I would notice first that uniform convergence implies $p$ is continuous on $E.$ Thus
$$|p_n(x_n)-p(x)| \le |p_n(x_n)-p(x_n)| + |p(x_n)-p(x)| \le \sup_E |p_n-p| + |p(x_n)-p(x)|.$$
The first term on the right $\to 0$ by uniform convergence, and the second term on the right $\to 0$ by the continuity of $p$ at $x.$