Suppose $f_n(x)$ is uniform convergence in $(0,1)$ we have to prove that $g_n(x) = f_n(x^2)$ is also uniform convergence in $(0,1)$.
Can someone help me with that?
2026-05-06 03:00:25.1778036425
Uniform convergence of $f_n(x^2)$
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