I have proved that $f_{n}(x)=\frac{x}{n}$ is not uniformly convergent on $0 \leqslant x<1$. Please confirm the proof.
Let $f_{n}(x)=\frac{x}{n}$, where $0 \leqslant x<1$, then $$\sup\left\{f_{1}(x),f_2(x),\dots,f_n(x),\dots\right\}=\sup\left\{1,1/2,1/3,\dots,1/n,\dots\right\}$$
So $\displaystyle\lim_{n\longrightarrow \infty}\sup f_{n}(x)={1}$.
This shows that $f_{n}(x)$ is not uniformly convergent.
You should revise your proof. Note that $$\sup_{x\in[0,1)}\left|\frac{x}{n}\right|\leq \frac{1}{n}.$$