The sequence $\displaystyle{f_n(x)= \left(\frac{\sin x}{x}\right)^{\frac{1}{n}},\, x\in [0,π] .}$ Find whether it converges pointwise, uniformly or not?
Since $\displaystyle{\lim_{n \to \infty} \left(\frac{\sin x}{x}\right)^{\frac{1}{n}} = 1 \,\forall x \in [0,π]}$, it is pointwise convergent. I know it's not uniform convergent but how to approach for that?
For $x=\pi$ the pointwise limit is not $1$, it is $0$. This also proves that the convergence is not uniform because the pointwise limit is not a continuous function.
[I am interpreting $f_n(0)$ as $1$ for all $n$].