How can I prove that $\sum_1^\infty(-x)^n/n$ converges uniformly on $[a, 1]$ where $a\in(-1,1)$
I've tried to use both Cauchy's criteria and Weierstrass M Test but have failed since the series does not converge at $-1$. I still think Cauchy criteria might work but I'm unable to find the right inquality I guess
In general, how can I prove that if a power series converges on $(-R,R]$ then in converges uniformly on $[a,R]$ where $a\in(-R,R)$
This follows from Dirichlet's test, since $\left(\frac1n\right)_{n\in\mathbb N}$ is monotonic and converges to $0$ and the partial sums of $\sum_{n=0}^\infty(-x)^n$ are uniformly bounded.